🚧 Fin 1

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tomit4 2026-05-22 14:24:50 -07:00
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@ -374,6 +374,98 @@ $f(f^{-1}(D)) \neq D$.
A:
(A) For $f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ defined by $f(n) = n^2$, what are each of
the following sets?
(a) $f^{-1}(\{1, 4, 9\})$
$$ f^{-1}(\{1, 4, 9\}) = \{1, 2, 3\} $$
(b) $f^{-1}(\{2, 3, 5, 7\})$
$$ f^{-1}(\{2, 3, 5, 7\}) = \emptyset $$
There are no natural numbers, $n$ such that $n^2 \in \{2, 3, 5, 7\}$ since none
of these numbers are perfect squares.
\(c\) $f^{-1}(\{1, 2, \dots, 10\})$
$$ f^{-1}(\{1, 2, \dots, 10\}) = \{1, 2, 3\} $$
(B) Prove that for any set $C \subseteq X, C \subseteq f^{-1}(f(C))$.
- Let $x$ be some element $x \in C$.
- If we then apply the function $f$ to $x$ as $f(x)$, since $C \subseteq X$, it
follows that $f(x) \in f(C)$ by the definition of the image of a set.
- Since $f(x) \in f(C)$, it then follows that $x \in f^{-1}(f(C))$ by definition
of an inverse image of a set.
- Therefore $C \subseteq f^{-1}(f(C))$.
\(C\) Give an example of a function $f$ and a set $C$ such that
$C \neq f^{-1}*(f(C))$.
- Let $X$ be the set $\{1, 2\}$, and let $C$ bu a subset of $X$, $C \subseteq X$
such that $C = \{1\}$.
- Let $f$ be a function defined as:
$$ f: X \to Y \quad f(x) = 0 \forall x \in X $$
- Therefore $f(C) = \{0\}$
- By the definition of an inverse image of a set
$f^{-1}(f(C)) = \{x \in X: f(x)\in f(C)\}$, so therefore
$f^{-1}(f(C)) = \{x \in X: f(x) = 0\}$
- Since $X = \{1, 2\}$, then $f(1) = 0$ and $f(2) = 0$, so
$f^{-1}(C) = \{1, 2\}$.
- Therefore $C = \{1\}$ and $f^{-1}(f(C)) = \{1, 2\}$, which means that
$C \neq f^{-1}(f(C))$.
(D) Prove that for any set $D \subseteq Y, f(f^{-1}(D)) \subseteq D$.
- By definition of an inverse image:
$$ f^{-1}(D) = \{x \in X: f(x) \in D\} $$
- By applying $f$ to the inverse, we get:
$$ f(f^{-1}(D)) = \{f(x): x \in X, f(x) \in D\} $$
- Since $x \in f^{-1}(D)$, we have $f(x) \in D$, so every element of
$f(f^{-1}(D))$ lies in $D$.
- Therefore, $f(f^{-1}(D)) \subseteq D$.
(E) Give an example of a function $f$ and a set $D$ such that
$f(f^{-1}(D)) \neq D$.
- Let the following be:
$$ X = \{1, 2} $$
$$ Y = \{0, 1\} $$
$$ f(1) = 0, f(2) = 0 $$
$$ D = \{0, 1\} $$
- The inverse image is:
$$ f^{-1}(D) = \{1, 2\} $$
- Apply $f$ to the inverse:
$$ f(f^{-1}(D)) = f(\{1, 2\}) = \{0\} $$
- Comparing:
$$ f(f^{-1}(D)) = \{0\} \neq \{0, 1\} = D $$
10.
Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $Y$. Prove
@ -381,6 +473,37 @@ that $f^{-1}(A \cap B) = f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B)$.
A:
- Let $x \in f^{-1}(A \cap B)$.
- By definition of an inverse image, this means that $f(x) \in A \cap B$
- This means that $f(x) \in A \wedge f(x) \in B$ by definition of an
intersection.
- It follows then that $x \in f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B)$
- Therefore $f^{-1}(A \cap B) \subseteq f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B)$
To prove equality, we must also show the reverse inclusion.
- Let $x \in f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B)$.
- This means that $x \in f^{-1}(A) \wedge x \in f^{-1}(B)$ by definition of an
intersection.
- It follows then that $f(x) \in A \wedge f(x) \in B$ by definition of an image
of a set.
- Then $f(x) \in A \cap B$ by definition of an intersection.
- So $x \in f^{-1}(A \cap B)$ by definition of an inverse image of a set.
- Therefore $f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B) \subseteq f^{-1}(A \cap B)$
Since both inclusions hold, this proves that:
$$ f^{-1}(A \cap B) = f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B) $$
11.
Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $Y$. Prove
@ -388,6 +511,37 @@ that $f^{-1}(A \cup B) = f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)$.
A:
- Let $x \in f^{-1}(A \cup B)$
- Then $f(x) \in A \cup B$ by definition of an inverse image.
- This means that $f(x) \in A \vee f(x) \in B$ by definition of a union.
- It follows then that $x \in f^{-1}(A) \vee x \in f^{-1}(B)$ by definition of
an inverse image.
- So $x \in f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)$ by definition of a union.
- Therefore $f^{-1}(A \cup B) \subseteq f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)$
Now reverse the inclusion.
- Let $x \in f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)$
- Then $x \in f^{-1}(A) \vee x \in f^{-1}(B)$ by definition of a union.
- So $f(x) \in A \vee f(x) \in B$ by definition of an inverse image.
- It then follows that $f(x) \in A \cup B$ by definition of a union.
- So $x \in f^{-1}(A \cup B)$ by definition of an inverse image.
- Therefore $f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B) \subseteq f^{-1}(A \cup B)$
Since both inclusions hold, we have proved that:
$$ f^{-1}(A \cup B) = f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B) $$
12.
Q: For each relation below, determine whether it is transitive. If it is, prove
@ -396,11 +550,48 @@ it. If it is not, give a counterexample.
(a) The relation "$|$" (divides) on $\mathbb{Z}$ defined by $a|b$ provided $b$
is a multiple of $a$.
$a|b$ is transitive on $\mathbb{Z}$ provided $b$ is a multiple of $a$.
Let $k$ be some multiple of $a$, this means that:
$$ b = a \cdot k $$
Let $c$ then be a multiple of $b$, $c|b$. Then let $m$ be some multiple of $c$.
This would then mean that:
$$ c = b \cdot m $$
$$ c = (a \cdot k) \cdot m = a(km) $$
And this means then that $c$ is a multiple of $b$ and also $a$ and that $a|b|c$.
Therefore the property is transitive since this then means that $a|c$.
(b) The relation "$\leq$" (less than or equal to) on $\mathbb{R}$.
The relation $\leq$ is transitive.
If we have two numbers, $b$, and $c$ such that $b \leq c$, and then we also have
a number $a$, such that $a \leq b$ , then it is true that $a \leq c$, which
demonstrates the transitive property.
\(c\) The relation "$\perp$" (is perpendicular to) on the set of lines in the
plane.
The relation $\perp$ is not transitive. Consider one horizontal plane $a$ and a
vertical plane $b$ such that $a \perp b$. Then say you have another horizontal
plane $c$ such that $b \perp c$. But this does NOT mean that $a \perp c$ since
this means that $a$ and $c$ are actually horizontal to each other, i.e.
$\overline{ac}$.
(d) The relation "$\sim$" (is similar to) on the set of triangles in the plane
(two triangles are similar if they have the same angles, bu are not necessarily
the same size).
The relation $\sim$ is transitive. Consider two triangles $A$ and $B$ such that
$A \sim B$. This means that both $A$ and $B$ have the same angles (but not
necessarily the same leg dimensions). If we then have a third triangle, $C$,
such that $B \sim C$, then this means that both $B$ and $C$ have the same angles
(but again, not necessarily the same leg dimensions). Since $A$ and $B$ have the
same angles (are $\sim$), and $B$ and $C$ have the same angles (are $\sim$),
then we can conclude that $A \sim C$ and we have shown that the relation $\sim$
is transitive.