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tomit4 2026-05-20 22:05:24 -07:00
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4 changed files with 333 additions and 5 deletions

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@ -7,6 +7,40 @@ $A \cup B = B$.
A:
First, let's prove that for any two sets $A$ and $B$, $A \subseteq B$ if
$A \cup B = B$.
$$ A \cup B = B \to A \subseteq B $$
- Suppose that $A \cup B = B$.
- Let $x$ be in $A$, $x \in A$.
- Then $x \in A \cup B$.
- Since $A \cup B = B$, then $x \in B$.
- Therefore $A \subseteq B$
Second, let's prove that for any two sets $A$ and $B$, $A \cup B = B$, if
$A \subseteq B$.
$$ A \subseteq B \to A \cup B = B $$
- Suppose $A \subseteq B$
- Let $x \in A \cup B$
- Then $x \in A$ or $x \in B$ by definition of a union.
- If $x \in B$, done.
- If $x \in A$, then since $A \subseteq B$, we get $x \in B$.
- So, in all cases $x \in B$.
- Therefore $A \cup B \subseteq B$.
2.
Q: The **intersection** of sets $A$ and $B$, denoted $A \cap B$, is the set of
@ -17,6 +51,34 @@ $A \cap B = A$.
A:
First, let's prove:
$$ A \subseteq B \to A \cap B = A $$
- Suppose that $A \subseteq B$
- Let $x$ be some element such that $x \in A \cap B$
- Since $A \subseteq B$, and $x \in A \cap B$, then $x \in A$ by definition of
an intersection
- Therefore $A \cap B \subseteq A$.
Secondly, let's prove:
$$ A \cap B = A \to A \subseteq B $$
- Suppose that $A \cap B = A$.
- Let $x$ be some element such that $x \in A$.
- Since $A \cap B = A$ and $x \in A$, then $x \in A \cap B$.
- $x \in A \cap B$ means $x$ \in A$ and $x \in B$ by definition of an
intersection
- Since every element of $A$ is an element of $B$, therefore $A \subseteq B$
3.
Q: Prove that for any sets $A$, $B$, and $C$, if $A \cup B \subseteq C$, then
@ -24,6 +86,34 @@ $A \subseteq C$ and $B \subseteq C$.
A:
First, let us prove:
$$ A \cup B \subseteq C \to A \subseteq C $$
- Suppose $A \cup B \subseteq C$
- Let $x$ be an element such that $x \in A$
- Since $x \in A$, we know that $x \in A \cup B$, by definition of a union.
- Since we know that $A \cup B \subseteq C$, it follows that $x \in C$.
- Therefore $A \subseteq C$
Second, let's prove that $B \subseteq C$:
$$ A \cup B \subseteq C \to B \subseteq C $$
- Suppose that $A \cup B \subseteq C$
- Let $x$ be an element such that $x \in B$
- Since $x \in B$, it follows that $x \in A \cup B$, by definition of a union
- Since we know that $A \cup B \subseteq C$, it follows that $x \in C$.
- Therefore $B \subseteq C$
4.
Q: Prove that for any sets $A$, $B$, and $C$, if $A \subseteq C$ and
@ -31,23 +121,100 @@ $B \subseteq C$, then $A \cup B \subseteq C$.
A:
Let's prove:
$$ (A \subseteq C) \wedge (B \subseteq C) \to A \cup B \subseteq C $$
- Suppose that $A \subseteq C$
- Suppose that $B \subseteq C$
- Let $x$ be an element such that $x \in A \cup B$
- $x \in A \cup B$ means that $x \in A$ or $x \in B$ by definition of a union
- If $x \in A$, and $A \subseteq C$, then $x \in C$
- If $x \in B$, and $B \subseteq C$, then $x \in C$
- In both cases $x \in C$
- Therefore $A \cup B \subseteq C$
5.
Q: The **difference** of sets $A$ and $B$, written $A$ \ $B$, is the set of all
elements that are in $A$ but not in $B$.
Q: The **difference** of sets $A$ and $B$, written $A \setminus B$, is the set
of all elements that are in $A$ but not in $B$.
The **empty set**, written $\emptyset$, is the set that contains no elements.
Prove that if $A$ \ $B = A$ then $A \cap B = \emptyset$.
Prove that if $A \setminus B = A$ then $A \cap B = \emptyset$.
A:
Let's prove:
$$ A \setminus B = A \to A \cap B = \emptyset $$
- Suppose $A \setminus B = A$
- Let $x$ be an element such that $x \in A \cap B$
- Since $x \in A \cap B$, this means that $x \in A$ and $x \in B$ by definition
of an intersection
- Since $A \setminus B = A$ and $x \in A$, it follows that $x \in A \setminus B$
- But if $x \in A \setminus B$, then it follows that $x \notin B$
- This is a contradiction since we established earlier that $x \in B$ by
definition of an intersection, but now we also established that $x \notin B$.
- Therefore $A \cap B = \emptyset$
A small note is worthwhile here. This is not a proof by contradiction in the
traditional sense. The contradiction does not start at the premise/argument
level, it only occurs at a single step of the proof.
6.
Q: Prove that if $A$ \ $B = B$ \ $A$ then $A = B$.
Q: Prove that if $A \setminus B = B \setminus A$ then $A = B$.
A:
Let's prove:
$$ (A \setminus B = B \setminus A) \to A = B $$
- Suppose that $A \setminus B = B \setminus A$
- Let $x$ be an element such that $x \in A \setminus B$
- Since $x \in A \setminus B$, this means that $x \in A$ and $x \notin B$ by
definition of a difference
- Since $x \in A \setminus B$ and $A \setminus B = B \setminus A$, it follows
that $x \in B \setminus A$
- Since $x \in B \setminus A$, this means that $x \in B$ and $x \notin A$ by
definition of a difference
- This is a contradiction since we've established that $x \in A$, $x \notin A$
(and also $x \in B$ and $x \notin B$).
- Therefore since $x$ cannot exist, we can conclude that
$A \setminus B = \emptyset$.
- And since $A \setminus B = \emptyset$ and $A \setminus B = B \setminus A$, we
can further conclude that $B \setminus A = \emptyset$.
- Since $A \setminus B = \emptyset$, we can conclude that $A \subseteq B$
- And also since $B \setminus A = \emptyset$, we can further conclude that
$B \subseteq A$
- Therefore $A = B$
7.
Q: Let $f:X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $X$.
@ -59,6 +226,69 @@ $f(A \cap B) \neq f(A) \cap f(B)$.
A:
(a) Prove that $f(A \cap B) \subseteq f(A) \cap f(B)$.
- Let there be some output $y$ such that $y \in f(A \cap B)$.
- Since $y \in f(A \cap B)$, there exists $x \in A \cap B$ such that $f(x) = y$
by the definition of an image.
- Since $x \in A \cap B$, this means that $x \in A$ and $x \in B$ by definition
of an intersection.
- It then follows that $f(x) \in f(A)$ and $f(x) \in f(B)$.
- Since $f(x) = y$, it further follows that $y \in f(A)$ and $y \in f(B)$, which
is expressed as $y \in f(A) \cap f(B)$.
- Therefore $f(A \cap B) \subseteq f(A) \cap f(B)$
(b) Find an example of a function and two sets $A$ and $B$ such that
$f(A \cap B) \neq f(A) \cap f(B)$.
A: This can happen depending on exactly what the function $f$ is in this case
and what $A$ and $B$ are defined as.
Let's say that $f$ in this case is:
$$ f(x) = 0, x \in \mathbb{R} $$
Then let's say our sets are:
$$ A = \{0\} $$
$$ B = \{1\} $$
Then for $f(A \cap B)$, we'll first need $A \cap B$:
$$ A \cap B = \emptyset $$
So:
$$ f(A \cap B) = f(\emptyset) = \emptyset $$
A small note here: when applying a function to a set via image notation, if the
set is empty, then there are no elements to map under the function, so the image
is the empty set.
Then consider $f(A) \cap f(B)$:
$$ f(\{0\}) = \{0\} $$
$$ f(\{1\}) = \{0\} $$
So:
$$ f(A) \cap f(B) = \{0\} $$
And then when we make our comparison:
$$ f(A \cap B) = \emptyset \neq \{0\} = f(A) \cap f(B) $$
So this is an example where:
$$ f(A \cap B) \neq f(A) \cap f(B) $$
8.
Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $X$.
@ -71,6 +301,51 @@ Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $X$.
A:
(a) Prove that $f(A \cup B) \subseteq f(A) \cup f(B)$.
- Let there be some output $y$ such that $y \in f(A \cup B)$.
- Since $y \in f(A \cup B)$, there exists $x \in A \cup B$ such that $f(x) = y$
by the definition of an image.
- Since $x \in A \cup B$, this means that $x \in A$ or $x \in B$ by definition
of an union.
- It then follows that $f(x) \in f(A)$ or $f(x) \in f(B)$.
- Since $f(x) = y$, it further follows that $y \in f(A)$ or $y \in f(B)$, which
is expressed as $y \in f(A) \cup f(B)$.
- Therefore $f(A \cup B) \subseteq f(A) \cup f(B)$
(b) Prove that $f(A) \cup (B) \subseteq f(A \cup B)$
- Let there be some output $y$ such that $y \in f(A) \cup f(B)$.
- Since $y \in f(A) \cup f(B)$, this means that $y \in f(A)$ or $y \in f(B)$ by
definition of a union.
- Since $y \in f(A) \cup f(B)$, there exists $x \in A$ or there exists $x \in B$
such that $f(x) = y$ by the definition of an image.
- If $x \in A$, $x \in A \cup B$.
- If $x \in B$, $x \in A \cup B$.
- In both cases $x \in A \cup B$, so $y \in f(A \cup B)$
- Since $f(x) = y$, it further follows that $y \in f(A \cup B)$.
- Therefore $f(A) \cup f(B) \subseteq f(A \cup B)$
\(c\) What can you conclude from the two proofs above?
Since in part (a), we found that $f(A \cup B) \subseteq f(A) \cup f(B)$ and in
part (b) we found that $f(A) \cup f(B) \subseteq f(A \cup B)$, we can conclude
that:
$$ f(A \cup B) = f(A) \cup f(B) $$
9.
Q: Given a function $f: X \to Y$ and a set $B \subseteq Y$, we define the

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@ -19,6 +19,8 @@ D. Suppose there is an element $b$ in $B$ that is not in $A$.
A:
B would be the best way to start.
2.
Q: Suppose you wanted to prove that for all sets $A$ and $B$ that
@ -35,6 +37,8 @@ D. Let $a$ be an element of $A \cap B$.
A:
B would be the best way to start.
3.
Q: Arrange some of the statements below to form a correct proof of the following
@ -62,6 +66,15 @@ $B \subseteq A$".
A:
- Suppose $B \subseteq A \cap B$, then let $b$ be an element of $B$.
- Then $b$ is an element of $B$ since $B \subseteq A \cap B$.
- Since $A \cap B$ contains all the elements that are in both $A$ and $B$, $b$
is an element of $A$.
- Therefore $B \subseteq A$.
4.
Q: Prove that for any sets $A$ and $B$, $(A \cap B) \cup A$ = A$. Arrange the
@ -91,6 +104,28 @@ statements below to form a correct proof.
A:
- First we will prove that $(A \cap B) \cup A \subseteq A$.
- Let $x$ be an element of $(A \cap B) \cup A$.
- Then $x$ is an element of $A \cap B$, or $x$ is an element of $A$.
- So in particular, $x$ is an element of $A$.
- Therefore $(A \cap B) \cup A \subseteq A$.
- Second, we will prove that $A \subseteq (A \cap B) \cup A$.
- Let $x$ be an element of $A$.
- Then $x$ is an element of $(A \cap B) \cup A$, since $x$ is in $A$ or in the
other set.
- Therefore $A \subseteq (A \cap B) \cup A$.
- Since $(A \cap B) \cup A \subseteq A$ and $A \subseteq (A \cap B) \cup A$, we
have $(A \cap B) \cup A = A$.
5.
Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function and let $B \subseteq Y$ be a subset of the
@ -121,3 +156,17 @@ form a correct proof.
- Let $a$ be an element of $f^{-1}(B_1)$.
A:
---
- Suppose $B_1 \subseteq B_2$.
- Let $a$ be an element of $f^{-1}(B_1)$.
- This means that $f(a)$ is an element of $B_1$.
- Since $B_1 \subseteq B_2$, $f(a)$ is an element of $B_2$.
- This then means that $a$ is an element of $f^{-1}(B_2)$.
- Therefore $f^{-1}(B_1) \subseteq f^{-1}(B_2)$.

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@ -15,6 +15,8 @@ D. The codomain $B$ is no smaller than the domain $A$.
A:
Answer A is the definition of a function $f: A \to B$ being injective.
2.
Q: When would you most likely use element chasing as part of a proof?
@ -28,3 +30,5 @@ C. When proving that a relation is transitive.
D. When proving that a graph has an odd number of edges.
A:
A is the correct answer.

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@ -1 +1 @@
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