🚧 Fin 1

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tomit4 2026-05-22 14:24:50 -07:00
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@ -374,6 +374,98 @@ $f(f^{-1}(D)) \neq D$.
A: A:
(A) For $f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ defined by $f(n) = n^2$, what are each of
the following sets?
(a) $f^{-1}(\{1, 4, 9\})$
$$ f^{-1}(\{1, 4, 9\}) = \{1, 2, 3\} $$
(b) $f^{-1}(\{2, 3, 5, 7\})$
$$ f^{-1}(\{2, 3, 5, 7\}) = \emptyset $$
There are no natural numbers, $n$ such that $n^2 \in \{2, 3, 5, 7\}$ since none
of these numbers are perfect squares.
\(c\) $f^{-1}(\{1, 2, \dots, 10\})$
$$ f^{-1}(\{1, 2, \dots, 10\}) = \{1, 2, 3\} $$
(B) Prove that for any set $C \subseteq X, C \subseteq f^{-1}(f(C))$.
- Let $x$ be some element $x \in C$.
- If we then apply the function $f$ to $x$ as $f(x)$, since $C \subseteq X$, it
follows that $f(x) \in f(C)$ by the definition of the image of a set.
- Since $f(x) \in f(C)$, it then follows that $x \in f^{-1}(f(C))$ by definition
of an inverse image of a set.
- Therefore $C \subseteq f^{-1}(f(C))$.
\(C\) Give an example of a function $f$ and a set $C$ such that
$C \neq f^{-1}*(f(C))$.
- Let $X$ be the set $\{1, 2\}$, and let $C$ bu a subset of $X$, $C \subseteq X$
such that $C = \{1\}$.
- Let $f$ be a function defined as:
$$ f: X \to Y \quad f(x) = 0 \forall x \in X $$
- Therefore $f(C) = \{0\}$
- By the definition of an inverse image of a set
$f^{-1}(f(C)) = \{x \in X: f(x)\in f(C)\}$, so therefore
$f^{-1}(f(C)) = \{x \in X: f(x) = 0\}$
- Since $X = \{1, 2\}$, then $f(1) = 0$ and $f(2) = 0$, so
$f^{-1}(C) = \{1, 2\}$.
- Therefore $C = \{1\}$ and $f^{-1}(f(C)) = \{1, 2\}$, which means that
$C \neq f^{-1}(f(C))$.
(D) Prove that for any set $D \subseteq Y, f(f^{-1}(D)) \subseteq D$.
- By definition of an inverse image:
$$ f^{-1}(D) = \{x \in X: f(x) \in D\} $$
- By applying $f$ to the inverse, we get:
$$ f(f^{-1}(D)) = \{f(x): x \in X, f(x) \in D\} $$
- Since $x \in f^{-1}(D)$, we have $f(x) \in D$, so every element of
$f(f^{-1}(D))$ lies in $D$.
- Therefore, $f(f^{-1}(D)) \subseteq D$.
(E) Give an example of a function $f$ and a set $D$ such that
$f(f^{-1}(D)) \neq D$.
- Let the following be:
$$ X = \{1, 2} $$
$$ Y = \{0, 1\} $$
$$ f(1) = 0, f(2) = 0 $$
$$ D = \{0, 1\} $$
- The inverse image is:
$$ f^{-1}(D) = \{1, 2\} $$
- Apply $f$ to the inverse:
$$ f(f^{-1}(D)) = f(\{1, 2\}) = \{0\} $$
- Comparing:
$$ f(f^{-1}(D)) = \{0\} \neq \{0, 1\} = D $$
10. 10.
Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $Y$. Prove Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $Y$. Prove
@ -381,6 +473,37 @@ that $f^{-1}(A \cap B) = f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B)$.
A: A:
- Let $x \in f^{-1}(A \cap B)$.
- By definition of an inverse image, this means that $f(x) \in A \cap B$
- This means that $f(x) \in A \wedge f(x) \in B$ by definition of an
intersection.
- It follows then that $x \in f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B)$
- Therefore $f^{-1}(A \cap B) \subseteq f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B)$
To prove equality, we must also show the reverse inclusion.
- Let $x \in f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B)$.
- This means that $x \in f^{-1}(A) \wedge x \in f^{-1}(B)$ by definition of an
intersection.
- It follows then that $f(x) \in A \wedge f(x) \in B$ by definition of an image
of a set.
- Then $f(x) \in A \cap B$ by definition of an intersection.
- So $x \in f^{-1}(A \cap B)$ by definition of an inverse image of a set.
- Therefore $f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B) \subseteq f^{-1}(A \cap B)$
Since both inclusions hold, this proves that:
$$ f^{-1}(A \cap B) = f^{-1}(A) \cap f^{-1}(B) $$
11. 11.
Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $Y$. Prove Q: Let $f: X \to Y$ be a function, and let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of $Y$. Prove
@ -388,6 +511,37 @@ that $f^{-1}(A \cup B) = f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)$.
A: A:
- Let $x \in f^{-1}(A \cup B)$
- Then $f(x) \in A \cup B$ by definition of an inverse image.
- This means that $f(x) \in A \vee f(x) \in B$ by definition of a union.
- It follows then that $x \in f^{-1}(A) \vee x \in f^{-1}(B)$ by definition of
an inverse image.
- So $x \in f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)$ by definition of a union.
- Therefore $f^{-1}(A \cup B) \subseteq f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)$
Now reverse the inclusion.
- Let $x \in f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B)$
- Then $x \in f^{-1}(A) \vee x \in f^{-1}(B)$ by definition of a union.
- So $f(x) \in A \vee f(x) \in B$ by definition of an inverse image.
- It then follows that $f(x) \in A \cup B$ by definition of a union.
- So $x \in f^{-1}(A \cup B)$ by definition of an inverse image.
- Therefore $f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B) \subseteq f^{-1}(A \cup B)$
Since both inclusions hold, we have proved that:
$$ f^{-1}(A \cup B) = f^{-1}(A) \cup f^{-1}(B) $$
12. 12.
Q: For each relation below, determine whether it is transitive. If it is, prove Q: For each relation below, determine whether it is transitive. If it is, prove
@ -396,11 +550,48 @@ it. If it is not, give a counterexample.
(a) The relation "$|$" (divides) on $\mathbb{Z}$ defined by $a|b$ provided $b$ (a) The relation "$|$" (divides) on $\mathbb{Z}$ defined by $a|b$ provided $b$
is a multiple of $a$. is a multiple of $a$.
$a|b$ is transitive on $\mathbb{Z}$ provided $b$ is a multiple of $a$.
Let $k$ be some multiple of $a$, this means that:
$$ b = a \cdot k $$
Let $c$ then be a multiple of $b$, $c|b$. Then let $m$ be some multiple of $c$.
This would then mean that:
$$ c = b \cdot m $$
$$ c = (a \cdot k) \cdot m = a(km) $$
And this means then that $c$ is a multiple of $b$ and also $a$ and that $a|b|c$.
Therefore the property is transitive since this then means that $a|c$.
(b) The relation "$\leq$" (less than or equal to) on $\mathbb{R}$. (b) The relation "$\leq$" (less than or equal to) on $\mathbb{R}$.
The relation $\leq$ is transitive.
If we have two numbers, $b$, and $c$ such that $b \leq c$, and then we also have
a number $a$, such that $a \leq b$ , then it is true that $a \leq c$, which
demonstrates the transitive property.
\(c\) The relation "$\perp$" (is perpendicular to) on the set of lines in the \(c\) The relation "$\perp$" (is perpendicular to) on the set of lines in the
plane. plane.
The relation $\perp$ is not transitive. Consider one horizontal plane $a$ and a
vertical plane $b$ such that $a \perp b$. Then say you have another horizontal
plane $c$ such that $b \perp c$. But this does NOT mean that $a \perp c$ since
this means that $a$ and $c$ are actually horizontal to each other, i.e.
$\overline{ac}$.
(d) The relation "$\sim$" (is similar to) on the set of triangles in the plane (d) The relation "$\sim$" (is similar to) on the set of triangles in the plane
(two triangles are similar if they have the same angles, bu are not necessarily (two triangles are similar if they have the same angles, bu are not necessarily
the same size). the same size).
The relation $\sim$ is transitive. Consider two triangles $A$ and $B$ such that
$A \sim B$. This means that both $A$ and $B$ have the same angles (but not
necessarily the same leg dimensions). If we then have a third triangle, $C$,
such that $B \sim C$, then this means that both $B$ and $C$ have the same angles
(but again, not necessarily the same leg dimensions). Since $A$ and $B$ have the
same angles (are $\sim$), and $B$ and $C$ have the same angles (are $\sim$),
then we can conclude that $A \sim C$ and we have shown that the relation $\sim$
is transitive.